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Oracle Practice Questions Dumps – 1z0-134, 1z0-343, 1z0-995, 1z0-928, 1z0-516 ,1z0-345
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The Latest Accurate Oracle 1Z0-020 Exam Practice Questions Easily Free Download
Oracle 1z0-134 Practice questions, 100% passing guarantee
QUESTION 1
We find the JMSRedelivered header set for a particular message on the receiver. In which two scenarios is this
expected to happen? (Choose two.)
A. The application has already received the message, but did not acknowledge it.
B. The session\\’s recover() method was called to restart the session beginning after the last acknowledged message.
C. The sender calls the redeliver() method for the message.
D. The sending application crashes after sending the message.
Correct Answer: AB
A: The JMSRedelivered property specifies a flag set when a message is redelivered because no acknowledge was
received. This flag is of interest to a receiving application. If set, the flag indicates that JMS may have delivered the
message previously because one of the following is true:
*
The application has already received the message, but did not acknowledge it.
*
The session\\’s recover() method was called to restart the session beginning after the last acknowledged message.
Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E12840_01/wls/docs103/jms/fund.html
QUESTION 2
Which three statements are correct regarding the WLST create command? (Choose three.)
A. When the create command is used with WLST online, the connection must be to the administration server.
B. The type of MBean being created must be a child type of the current management object.
C. The correct order of the mandatory parameters for the create statement is name followed by childMBeanType.
D. The create command is used to create any configuration or runtime management bean.
E. The create command returns a WLSTProgress object.
Correct Answer: ABC
A: When using the create command with WLST online you must be connected to an Administration Server.
B: Child types must be created under an instance of their parent type.
C: Syntax: create(name, childMBeanType, [baseProviderType])
The Create command creates a configuration bean of the specified type for the current bean.
Incorrect Answers:
D: The create command returns a stub for the newly created configuration bean. It can\\’t create a runtime management
bean.
E: The create command returns a stub for the newly created configuration bean.
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E13222_01/wls/docs92/config_scripting/reference.html#wp1081543
QUESTION 3
Which three considerations do you need to keep in mind while configuring a JMS file store in order to ensure the highest
possible performance? (Choose three.)
A. Privilege local disks over remotely mounted disks.
B. Compress the file store when there are no more messages.
C. Select the cache-flush synchronous write policy.
D. Dedicate one disk for all file stores.
E. Set MessagesMaximum in your JMS destinations.
Correct Answer: ABD
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/middleware/1212/wls/PERFM/storetune.htm#PERFM231
QUESTION 4
I am sending a set of ten JMS messages. I want all of these messages to be sent successfully or none at all. Which
JMS Session feature is most suitable for implementing such a scenario? (Choose the best answer.)
A. Transacted Session
B. Unit of Order
C. Store and Forward
D. Persistent Session
E. Server affinity
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E13222_01/wls/docs103/jms/fund.html
QUESTION 5
You are required to configure a Coherence cluster for a WebLogic domain. Review the image below for the architecture
of the WebLogic domain.
The configuration represents the following:
Two WebLogic clusters of n number of servers each One cluster contains an EAR deployment that contains a WAR
module and a GAR module One cluster contains a GAR deployment Application data flows into the cluster with the EAR
deployment and then to the cluster with the standalone GAR deployment
Based on this configuration, what is the typical configuration of a Coherence cluster for this domain?
A. Single Coherence cluster that includes both WebLogic clusters. EAR cluster is storage-disabled. GAR cluster is
storage-enabled.
B. Single Coherence cluster that includes both WebLogic clusters/ EAR cluster is storage-enabled. GAR cluster is
storage-disabled.
C. A Coherence cluster for each WebLogic cluster. EAR and GAR clusters use a replicated topology with storage
enabled.
D. Single Coherence cluster that includes both WebLogic clusters. EAR and standalone GAR clusters are both storageenabled.
Correct Answer: A
A Coherence cluster can contain any number of managed Coherence servers. The servers can be standalone managed
servers or can be part of a WebLogic Server cluster that is associated with a Coherence cluster.
*
storage-disabled ?a managed Coherence server that is not responsible for storing data and is used to host Coherence
applications (cache clients). A Coherence application GAR is packaged within an EAR and deployed on storagedisabled managed Coherence servers.
*
storage-enabled ?a managed Coherence server that is responsible for storing data in the cluster. Coherence
applications are packaged as Grid ARchives (GAR) and deployed on storage-enabled managed Coherence servers.
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/middleware/1212/wls/CLUST/coherence.htm#CLUST660
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Oracle 1z0-343 Practice questions, 100% passing guarantee
QUESTION 1
Your client is concerned that after the most recent update, commitment information in the Item Availability program does
not reflect the correct amounts for sales orders.
Running which report corrects any commitment issues for any open sales orders?
A. the Inventory G/L Post report
B. the Repost Active Sales Order report
C. the Pick Slip report to pick any eligible sales orders
D. the Item Balance/Ledger Integrity report
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Your client wants to ensure that the system will take certain quantities into account when committing available inventory
during the order entry process.
Which two statements are true about the calculation of available inventory? (Choose two.)
A. Quantities or open purchase orders can increase availability.
B. Hard commitments are always subtracted from on-hand quantity, but not future commitments.
C. Safety stock is always subtracted from the available quantity.
D. Quantities in inspection increase the available quantity if it is defined to do so in Receipt Routing Definition.
E. The availability calculation is defined in Branch/Plant Constants (P41001).
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 3
Your client is being charged a warehouse storage fee equal to 10% of the brokerage fees that are already included in
the landed costs setup.
How should you set up the landed costs to accomplish this?
A. Attach a second landed cost rule to the item.
B. Add another cost level to the Landed Cost table with a percentage of cost equal to 10% and a based-on level pointing
to the brokerage fee line.
C. Set up the warehouse storage fee by specific item number.
D. Add another cost level to the landed cost table with a percentage of cost equal to 10%.
E. Increase the cost level line for brokerage fees by 10%.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E59116_01/doc.94/e58762/setup_land_costs.htm#WEAPO738
QUESTION 4
Your company wants to enter transactions using a customer\\’s item number instead of the primary item number.
How do you enable this for sales orders?
A. Enter the customer\\’s item number as the third item number in the Item Master table. During transaction entry, enter
the customer\\’s item number preceded by the code.
B. Set up base price or advanced pricing for this customer/item combination using the customer\\’s item number.
C. Set up the customer cross-reference symbol in Branch/Plant Constants and define the customer item number in the
Item Cross Reference table. During transaction entry, enter the customer\\’s item number preceded by the symbol.
D. Set up the customer cross-reference code in Branch/Plant Constants. During transaction entry, enter the customer\\’s
item number preceded by the code.
E. Set the flag in Customer Billing Instructions to use the customer item numbers from supplemental data.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
You have enabled the Receipt Routing program in processing options of the Receipts program (P4312). No route code
is in effect for the supplier/item relationship.
What happens when you enter receipts?
A. The system will deliver a hard error, which will prevent processing the receipt.
B. The system will use the standard Route Code for the Branch/Plant as the default.
C. The system will process the receipt normally, without accessing the Receipt Routing program.
D. The system will warn that the Receipt Routing program has not been properly set up.
E. The system will process the receipt without adjustments to on-hand quantities.
Correct Answer: D
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Oracle 1z0-995 Practice questions, 100% passing guarantee
QUESTION 1
For which three objects can you configure the out-of-box “Restricted Party Screening” UI action in the Screen Set for
performing Restricted Party Screening? (Choose three.)
A. Trade Transaction
B. Shipment
C. Trade Transaction Line
D. Party
E. Item
Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 2
Which business object do you use to set up the details of the classification data that you want to download and
configure how it is mapped from the content provider\\’s data to the GTM data structure?
A. Content Source
B. Product Classification Category
C. Data Load Type
D. External System
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
Where do you specify the Value and Quantity Qualifiers used when executing Estimate Duty and Tax action from a
Declaration Line?
A. Parameter Sets
B. Service Preference
C. Properties
D. Logic Configuration
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.oracle.com/webfolder/technetwork/tutorials/tutorial/cloud/scm/18C-otm-wn.htm
QUESTION 4
Which method is used to identify the cost components and formula-driven values required for a specific Declaration?
A. Execute Compliance Rules to assign a Value Set.
B. Set up a Logic Configuration with specific Primary Line – Value Qualifiers.
C. Use Allocate Values by Line on a Declaration.
D. Configure Data Configuration on the Logic Configuration.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
A GTM table has been exported, and the contents of the table have been changed. Which three steps should be
performed next to ensure that an error does not occur during data upload? (Choose three.)
A. Make sure that all data is in lowercase and spaces are replaced with the underscore symbol.
B. Make sure that all data is in uppercase.
C. Make sure that all the commas in your data are enclosed in single quotation marks.
D. Remove the columns labeled INSERT_DATE and UPDATE_DATE.
E. Remove the columns labeled INSERT_USER and UPDATE_USER.
Correct Answer: ACD
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Oracle 1z0-928 Practice questions, 100% passing guarantee
QUESTION 1
When all the members of your team log in to their Oracle Cloud account, on the Dashboard they see two services:
Oracle Big Data Cloud Service and Oracle Database Cloud Service. There is a lot of data in the Hadoop cluster of your
Oracle Big Data Cloud Service.
Which Oracle Big Data Connector will easily allow your database users to see the data in the Hadoop cluster?
A. osch
B. oxh
C. od4h
D. olh
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E27101_01/doc.10/e27365/start.htm#CHDJIBGI
QUESTION 2
You have a 3-Rack Hadoop Cluster and you have configured HDFS with the replication factor set to 3. All Racks and
Nodes are up and running.
Which is the correct Data Replica layout by default?
A. One replica on one node in Local Rack1, another replica on a node in a remote Rack2, and the last replica on the
fastest node in the cluster.
B. One replica on one node in Local Rack1, another replica on a node in a remote Rack2, and the last replica on a
different node in the same remote Rack2.
C. One replica on one node in Local Rack1, another replica on a node in a remote Rack2, and the last replica on a
different node in Local Rack1.
D. One replica on one node in Local Rack1, another replica on a node in a remote Rack2, and the last replica on a node
in the remote Rack3.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
You want to take advantage of the many Oracle products your company is using with on-premises products and with
cloud services. Your company has locations geographically dispersed. You need to not only share data changes with all
those locations, but also want to process the data with various Hadoop products.
Which Big Data Connector should you use?
A. Oracle R Advanced Analytics for Hadoop
B. Oracle GoldenGate for Hadoop
C. Oracle SQL Connector for Hadoop
D. Oracle Data Integrator for Hadoop
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
How can you collect and move Syslog data with HDFS without any data loss?
A. Use the HDFS copy command as long as you have necessary HDFS and Cluster Access Privileges.
B. Use FLUME with Memory channel and Sink.
C. Use FLUME with In File channel
D. Use PIG with error checking enabled
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
Which component provides resources for dynamic high-performance processing in Big Data Cloud Service?
A. Edge Node
B. Permanent Node
C. Compute Cluster Node
D. Network Cluster Node
Correct Answer: A
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Oracle 1z0-516 Practice questions, 100% passing guarantee
QUESTION 1
Which business flow is used for activities starting from product purchase to creating and closing service requests?
A. Click to Order
B. Campaign to Order
C. Contract to Renewal
D. Request to Resolution
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
An administrator tries to change the document views on an attribute from a participant profile on a given step. But the
attribute is not listed in the list of attributes that are available for editing.
What are the two reasons for this behavior? (Choose two.)
A. The attribute is a system attribute
B. The attribute is being referenced in an active Hiding rule
C. The attribute is not added to the layout
D. The attribute is hidden on the Attribute Details page
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 3
All receipts that fail validation during AutoLockbox processing remain in the _____ table.
A. AR_PAYMENT_SCHEDULE
B. AR_PAYMENTS_INTERFACE_ALL
C. AR_INTERIM_CASH_RECEIPTS_ALL
D. AR_INTERIM_CASH_RCPT_LINES_ALL
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
ABC Enterprise closes its books on March 31st. These activities have been identified to be performed for the closure of
books.
1) post 2) translate 3) review 4) consolidate 5) revalue 6) run accounting reports 7) close accounting period
In which order must these activities be performed?
A. 1, 3, 5, 2, 4, 6, 7
B. 5, 2, 3, 1, 7, 4, 6
C. 1, 5, 2, 3, 4, 7, 6
D. 1, 3, 2, 5, 7, 4, 6
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
ABC Inc. wants to have 16 accounting periods that include an adjusting period for each quarter in its 4-5-4 accounting
calendar. Its fiscal year-end is March 31.
The normal month-end is on a Friday, but the last day of each quarter is always on the last day of the quarter\\’s final
calendar month.
Select the remaining setup for the calendar to meet the requirement.
A. defining 12-monthly periods based on the 4-5-4 calendar ending on the last day of each month; defining an adjusting
period on the last day of each quarter
B. defining 12-monthly periods based on the 4-5-4 calendar ending on the last Friday of each month; defining four
adjusting periods for March 31 of the fiscal year
C. defining 12-monthly periods based on the 4-5-4 calendar ending on the last Friday of each month; defining an
adjusting period on the last Friday of each quarter
D. defining 12-monthly periods based on the 4-5-4 calendar ending on the last Friday of each month, except for the last
month of each quarter ending on the last day of the month; defining an adjusting period for each of the last day of the
quarter
Correct Answer: D
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Oracle 1z0-345 Practice questions, 100% passing guarantee
QUESTION 1
You have created a policy model which adjust employee shift start and end times, to align with an existing payroll
system.
If an employee clocked in at 09:22, what will the value of the adjusted employee\\’s clock in time be?
A. 09:15
B. 09:30
C. 09:25
D. 09:20
E. Uncertain
F. 09:00
G. 10:00
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Your policy model has two entities: the applicant (Global) and the applicant\\’s income.
What type of relationship does the text “the applicant\\’s primary income” describe?
A. one-to-one
B. self-referential one-to-one
C. many-to-one
D. one-to-many
E. many-to-many
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
Assuming “the customer\\’s discount threshold” is an existing currency attribute, which two changes should you make to
the rule for it to pass Validation?
A. Insert quotation marks around “uncertain”.
B. Change “otherwise” to OPM ?conclusion style.
C. Change “the customer\\’s discount threshold” to “the customer\\’s discount threshold is”.
D. Swap column 1 and column 2.
E. Remove the $ sign.
F. Change “The customer is a silver member” to OPM ?level 1 style.
G. Change “the customer\\’s discount threshold” to “the customer\\’s discount threshold =”.
Correct Answer: DF
QUESTION 4
You are working on a new Policy Automation interview that will load and save data into Service Cloud. You set your
Data Mapping Settings to connect to the Service Cloud instance and are using the Data | Output Mapping view in Policy
Modeling to create the entities and attributes you want to work with.
You notice that the field “Name” has a red asterisk next to it.
What two statements are correct about what the red asterisk indicates?
A. You must save a value of this attribute into Service Cloud.
B. The values for this attribute come from a value list.
C. This field is required by Service Cloud.
D. This attribute must be used as the identifying attribute for the entity.
E. This attribute is currently the identifying attribute for the entity.
F. This attribute is not yet collected on a screen.
G. You must infer this attribute.
H. You must collect this attribute.
I. You must load a value of this attribute from Service Cloud.
Correct Answer: AF
Reference: https://www.oracle.com/technetwork/documentation/e79061-01-opm1047-3252369.pdf (383)
QUESTION 5
Which example of a single Boolean attribute text uses a conjunction (and) correctly?
A. the person is hot and the person is in the sun
B. the person\\’s favorite color combination is blue and yellow
C. the person drank the coffee and the person ate the cake
D. the person satisfied either eligibility criteria
E. the person satisfied both eligibility criteria
Correct Answer: C
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